Paper011. A 58-year-old woman with diabetes attends after 40 minutes of severe central chest pain. A 12-lead ECG is described as follows: sinus rhythm 88 bpm; ST-segment elevation of 3 mm in V2, V3 and V4; reciprocal ST depression in leads II, III and aVF; no Q waves yet. What is the most appropriate interpretation and next step?A. Anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction; activate emergency reperfusion pathway via 999 nowB. Pericarditis is most likely because ST elevation is present; treat with high-dose ibuprofen in primary careC. Left-bundle-branch block equivalent; arrange outpatient Holter monitoring within 2 weeks, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practiceD. This is a non-ST-elevation pattern; start fondaparinux in the surgery and refer routinely to chest-pain clinicCheck
Paper012. A 52-year-old man has clinic blood pressure 158/96 mmHg on two occasions, no target-organ damage, QRISK3 8%. He is not diabetic. What is the most appropriate next step? Select TWO correct statements.Select all that apply.A. Most appropriate: Offer ambulatory or home blood-pressure monitoring to confirm the diagnosisB. The following is not the most appropriate next step: Start amlodipine 5 mg immediately without further confirmation, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practiceC. Most appropriate: Start ramipril 10 mg because clinic readings already show stage 2 hypertensionD. Most appropriate: Discharge from follow-up as QRISK3 is below 10%, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practiceCheck
Paper013. A 71-year-old man with HFrEF (ejection fraction 32%) is on bisoprolol 10 mg, ramipril 10 mg and spironolactone 25 mg. eGFR 58 mL/min/1.73 m², potassium 4.4 mmol/L, no type 2 diabetes. He remains NYHA class II. What additional disease-modifying therapy should be offered if no contraindication?A. High-dose ibuprofen for 'inflammatory cardiomyopathy', which is not the safest next step in NHS general practiceB. Nicorandil as mandatory fourth-line therapy before any SGLT2 inhibitorC. A sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitor licensed for heart failureD. Verapamil to provide additional rate control, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practiceCheck
Paper014. A 72-year-old man with COPD (FEV1 45% predicted) presents in January with 3 days of increased dyspnoea, wheeze and a small increase in sputum volume. Sputum remains mucoid (not purulent). Oxygen saturations 93% on air, respiratory rate 22/min, no confusion, no chest-film consolidation last winter with similar episodes. What is the most appropriate first-line oral treatment for this exacerbation? Select TWO correct statements.Select all that apply.A. Most appropriate: Prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 daysB. The following is not the most appropriate next step: Long-term oral prednisolone 10 mg daily indefinitelyC. Most appropriate: Co-amoxiclav for 14 days even though sputum is mucoidD. Most appropriate: Nebulised magnesium sulfate in the GP treatment room as sole therapyCheck
Paper015. A 19-year-old student has twice-weekly wheeze and uses a salbutamol inhaler bought overseas. She has had no inhaled corticosteroid. She is not acutely unwell today. What is the most appropriate prescribing decision? Select TWO correct statements.Select all that apply.A. Most appropriate: Do not prescribe SABA-only treatment; start an inhaled corticosteroid-containing regimen (AIR or conventional ICS plus reliever as per current NICE/BTS/SIGN)B. The following is not the most appropriate next step: Start oral theophylline instead of any inhaler, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practice and this would delay appropriate UK-guideline care despite sounding plausible in a hospital protocolC. Most appropriate: Give a one-off intramuscular triamcinolone injection and no inhalers, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practice and this would delay appropriate UK-guideline care despite sounding plausible in a hospital protocolD. Most appropriate: Continue salbutamol monotherapy as she is young with 'mild' symptoms, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practice and this would delay appropriate UK-guideline care despite sounding plausible in a hospital protocolCheck
Paper016. A 76-year-old woman with COPD and previous hypercapnic respiratory failure is breathless during a viral winter illness. Oxygen saturations are 86% on air. You have oxygen available in the treatment room while awaiting the ambulance. What target saturation range is most appropriate while giving controlled oxygen? Select TWO correct statements.Select all that apply.A. Most appropriate: 88–92% using controlled oxygen, titrated to saturationsB. The following is not the most appropriate next step: 94–98% as for all acutely ill adults without exception, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practiceC. Most appropriate: 100% via non-rebreathe mask regardless of previous hypercapniaD. Most appropriate: No oxygen should ever be given in COPD even if saturations are 86%Check
Paper017. A 22-year-old tall slim man has sudden unilateral chest pain and mild dyspnoea after stretching. Oxygen saturations 97% on air, heart rate 88 bpm. You suspect primary spontaneous pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate next step? The most appropriate action is: Same-day chest X-ray (or emergency assessment) rather than treating as musculoskeletal painTRUE. TrueFALSE. FalseCheck
Paper018. A 69-year-old man with COPD has an exacerbation with frankly purulent green sputum, increased volume and dyspnoea. He is not systemically septic. No penicillin allergy. Local guidance follows NICE. What is the most appropriate antibiotic decision?A. A 6-week course of ciprofloxacin as routine first-line, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practice and this would delay appropriate UK-guideline careB. Offer an oral antibiotic (for example amoxicillin, doxycycline or clarithromycin as per local policy) in addition to steroids if indicatedC. Intravenous meropenem in the GP surgery for 3 days, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practice and this would delay appropriate UK-guideline careD. Never use antibiotics in COPD regardless of sputum colour, which is not the safest next step in NHS general practice and this would delay appropriate UK-guideline careCheck
Paper019. A 54-year-old man has low-severity community-acquired pneumonia (CRB65 0), no comorbidity, no penicillin allergy. He will be treated at home with safety-netting. What is the most appropriate first-line antibiotic if local resistance patterns allow? The most appropriate action is: Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 5 daysTRUE. TrueFALSE. FalseCheck
Paper0110. A 46-year-old man describes the worst headache of his life, peaking within seconds while lifting a crate. He is now photophobic with a stiff neck. Neurological examination is otherwise normal. What is the most appropriate action?A. Emergency admission to exclude subarachnoid haemorrhage, in line with current UK national guidanceB. Sumatriptan subcutaneously in the surgery and discharge if improvedC. CT head requested routinely in 2 weeks via direct accessD. High-dose ibuprofen and safety-net for 'sinusitis'Check