Respiratory1. A 28-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of intermittent wheeze, nocturnal cough and chest tightness. Objective tests confirm asthma. She is not highly symptomatic and has not had an acute attack. She has never used an inhaler. What is the most appropriate initial regular strategy?A. Low-dose ICS/formoterol inhaler used only as needed for symptoms (AIR)B. Salbutamol metered-dose inhaler used as the sole therapy for symptom reliefC. Regular high-dose inhaled corticosteroid plus a separate salbutamol relieverD. Regular montelukast tablets as monotherapy with no inhaled corticosteroidCheck
Respiratory2. A 62-year-old man with a 40 pack-year smoking history reports progressive exertional breathlessness and winter bronchitis. Post-bronchodilator spirometry: FEV1 1.85 L (62% predicted), FVC 3.40 L, FEV1/FVC 0.54. What is the most appropriate interpretation?A. The ratio is in the restrictive range so idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is more likelyB. Peak expiratory flow must still be recorded before COPD can be coded in NHS general practice given the history providedC. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC below 0.70 supports a diagnosis of COPD in this contextD. Only pre-bronchodilator spirometry is required to confirm COPD in primary care at today's consultationCheck
Respiratory3. A 52-year-old woman who stopped smoking 8 years ago reports two episodes of unexplained frank haemoptysis this week. She feels otherwise well. What is the most appropriate next management for suspected lung cancer? The most appropriate action is: Routine chest X-ray and review the film in 6 weeks if it is reported as normalTRUE. TrueFALSE. FalseCheck
Respiratory4. A 44-year-old man is seen face to face with fever, productive cough and focal crackles. You diagnose community-acquired pneumonia. He is orientated, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, blood pressure 128/78 mmHg. He can take tablets. There are no sepsis features. What is the most appropriate place-of-care plan?A. Primary care treatment with safety-netting adviceB. Immediate ambulance transfer solely because pneumonia is a hospital diagnosisC. Same-day CT pulmonary angiogram before any antibiotic is issuedD. Admission for intravenous antibiotics because oral amoxicillin is never used firstCheck
Respiratory5. A 31-year-old man has a 6-week history of cough, night sweats and weight loss. Chest X-ray shows apical cavitation. You suspect pulmonary tuberculosis. Sputum has been sent but culture will take weeks. What is the most appropriate notification action? The most appropriate action is: Wait for a positive culture before notifying, to avoid false public-health alertsTRUE. TrueFALSE. FalseCheck
Respiratory6. A 49-year-old woman with COPD wants to stop smoking. She is 50 years old next birthday, not pregnant, and accepts behavioural support. She prefers a nicotine-containing licensed option rather than a tablet. What is the most appropriate pharmacological offer among the following? Select TWO correct statements.Select all that apply.A. Most appropriate: Combination long-acting plus short-acting nicotine replacement therapyB. The following is not the most appropriate next step: Short-acting nicotine gum used alone without a long-acting patch in this presentationC. Most appropriate: Cytisinicline, which is first-line for everyone aged 66 and over in NHS general practiceD. Most appropriate: Bupropion as the option most likely to succeed compared with combination NRTCheck
Respiratory7. A 34-year-old man is stepped up from as-needed AIR to low-dose maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) with budesonide/formoterol. He asks whether he should keep his old salbutamol inhaler 'just in case'. What is the most appropriate advice? The most appropriate action is: Use salbutamol and MART together at every symptom episode to double bronchodilationTRUE. TrueFALSE. FalseCheck
Respiratory8. A 68-year-old woman with known COPD has a moderate exacerbation: more breathless, wheeze, but no features of pneumonia or respiratory failure. She can use her inhalers. What is the most appropriate oral corticosteroid course if a steroid is indicated?A. Prednisolone 40 mg daily for 14 days as in some older hospital protocolsB. Prednisolone 5 mg daily for 8 weeks as a weaning 'tail'C. Prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 daysD. Dexamethasone 8 mg once only, then stop all steroidsCheck
Respiratory9. A 3-year-old has recurrent viral wheeze and interval symptoms suggestive of asthma. He cannot perform spirometry or FeNO. What is the most appropriate diagnostic-management approach? Select TWO correct statements.Select all that apply.A. Most appropriate: Treat with a time-limited inhaled corticosteroid trial and review; objective tests from age 5 if symptoms persistB. The following is not the most appropriate next step: Diagnose COPD because recurrent wheeze at this age implies irreversible obstruction in this presentation in NHS general practiceC. Most appropriate: Refer every preschool wheezer immediately for bronchial challenge testing in NHS general practice given the history provided at today's consultationD. Most appropriate: Give as-needed ICS/formoterol MART as the licensed preschool first-line at today's consultation for the person described in this presentationCheck
Respiratory10. A 70-year-old with confirmed COPD is limited by breathlessness. MRC dyspnoea scale is 3. He has had no recent unstable cardiac event. What is the most appropriate non-pharmacological referral?A. Bed rest until breathlessness settles, avoiding all exertionB. Immediate lung-volume reduction surgery via the 2-week-wait cancer pathwayC. Long-term oral prednisolone 10 mg daily instead of rehabilitationD. Pulmonary rehabilitationCheck